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Obstetrics Ratio.pptx

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The document contains 10 multiple choice questions about female and male reproductive systems, pregnancy, labor and delivery, and signs and symptoms of pregnancy. It provides detailed explanations for each answer that describe hormone functions, stages of labor, use of Naegele's rule to estimate due dates, appropriate nursing interventions for SIADH, locations of common pregnancy skin changes, and classification of cervical and uterine exam findings.

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Obstetrics Ratio.pptx
Q1. A nursing instructor is conducting lecture and is reviewing the functions of the female reproductive system. She asks Mark to describe the follicle- stimulating hormone (FSH) and the luteinizing hormone (LH). Mark accurately responds by stating that: A) FSH and LH are released from the anterior pituitary gland. B) FSH and LH are secreted by the corpus luteum of the ovary C) FSH and LH are secreted by the adrenal glands D) FSH and LH stimulate the formation of milk during pregnancy. FSH and LH are released from the anterior pituitary gland. FSH and LH, when stimulated by gonadotropin-releasing hormone from the hypothalamus, are released from the anterior pituitary gland to stimulate follicular growth and development, growth of the graafian follicle, and production of progesterone.
Q2. Which of the following refers to the single cell that reproduces itself after conception? A) Chromosome B) Blastocyst C) Zygote D) Trophoblast The zygote is the single cell that reproduces itself after conception. The chromosome is the material that makes up the cell and is gained from each parent. Blastocyst and trophoblast are later terms for the embryo after zygote.
3. When teaching a group of adolescents about male hormone production, which of the following would the nurse include as being produced by the Leydig cells? A) Follicle-stimulating hormone B) Testosterone C) Luteinizing hormone D) Gonadotropin releasing hormone Testosterone is produced by the Leyding cells in the seminiferous tubules. Follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone are released by the anterior pituitary gland. The hypothalamus is responsible for releasing gonadotropin-releasing hormone.
4. During which of the following stages of labor would the nurse assess ¡°crowning¡±? A) First stage B) Second stage C) Third stage D) Fourth stage Crowing, which occurs when the newborn¡¯s head or presenting part appears at the vaginal opening, occurs during the second stage of labor. During the first stage of labor, cervical dilation and effacement occur. During the third stage of labor, the newborn and placenta are delivered. The
Q5. A client arrives at a prenatal clinic for the first prenatal assessment. The client tells a nurse that the first day of her last menstrual period was September 19th, 2013. Using Naegele¡¯s rule, the nurse determines the estimated date of confinement as: A) July 26, 2013 B) June 12, 2014 C) June 26, 2014 D) July 12, 2014 June 26, 2014. Accurate use of Naegele¡¯s rule requires that the woman have a regular 28-day menstrual cycle. Add 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period, subtract three months, and then add one year to that date.
Q6. A male client is admitted for treatment of the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which nursing intervention is appropriate? A) Infusing I.V. fluids rapidly as ordered B) Encouraging increased oral intake C) Restricting fluids D) Administering glucose-containing I.V. fluids as ordered To reduce water retention in a client with the SIADH, the nurse should restrict fluids. Administering fluids by any route would further increase the client¡¯s already heightened fluid load.
Q7. Which of the following fundal heights indicates less than 12 weeks¡¯ gestation when the date of the LMP is unknown? A) Uterus in the pelvis B) Uterus at the xiphoid C) Uterus in the abdomen D) Uterus at the umbilicus A. When the LMP is unknown, the gestational age of the fetus is estimated by uterine size or position (fundal height). The presence of the uterus in the pelvis indicates less than 12 weeks¡¯ gestation. At approximately 12 to 14 weeks, the fundus is out of the pelvis above the symphysis pubis. The fundus is at the level of the umbilicus at approximately 20 weeks¡¯ gestation and reaches the xiphoid at term or 40 weeks.
Q8. On which of the following areas would the nurse expect to observe chloasma? A) Breast, areola, and nipples B) Chest, neck, arms, and legs C) Abdomen, breast, and thighs D) Cheeks, forehead, and nose Chloasma, also called the mask of pregnancy, is an irregular hyperpigmented area found on the face. It is not seen on the breasts, areola, nipples, chest, neck, arms, legs, abdomen, or thighs. .
Q9. Cervical softening and uterine souffle are classified as which of the following? A) Diagnostic signs B) Presumptive signs C) Probable signs D) Positive signs Cervical softening (Goodell sign) and uterine souffl¨¦ are two probable signs of pregnancy. Probable signs are objective findings that strongly suggest pregnancy. Other probable signs include Hegar sign, which is softening of the lower uterine segment. Presumptive signs are subjective signs and include amenorrhea; nausea and vomiting; urinary frequency; breast tenderness and changes; excessive fatigue; uterine enlargement; and quickening.
Q10. Which of the following fundal heights indicates less than 12 weeks¡¯ gestation when the date of the LMP is unknown? A) Uterus in the pelvis B) Uterus at the xiphoid C) Uterus in the abdomen D) Uterus at the umbilicus When the LMP is unknown, the gestational age of the fetus is estimated by uterine size or position (fundal height). The presence of the uterus in the pelvis indicates less than 12 weeks¡¯ gestation. At approximately 12 to 14 weeks, the fundus is out of the pelvis above the symphysis pubis. The fundus is at the level of the umbilicus at approximately 20 weeks¡¯ gestation and reaches the xiphoid at term or 40 weeks
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Obstetrics Ratio.pptx

  • 2. Q1. A nursing instructor is conducting lecture and is reviewing the functions of the female reproductive system. She asks Mark to describe the follicle- stimulating hormone (FSH) and the luteinizing hormone (LH). Mark accurately responds by stating that: A) FSH and LH are released from the anterior pituitary gland. B) FSH and LH are secreted by the corpus luteum of the ovary C) FSH and LH are secreted by the adrenal glands D) FSH and LH stimulate the formation of milk during pregnancy. FSH and LH are released from the anterior pituitary gland. FSH and LH, when stimulated by gonadotropin-releasing hormone from the hypothalamus, are released from the anterior pituitary gland to stimulate follicular growth and development, growth of the graafian follicle, and production of progesterone.
  • 3. Q2. Which of the following refers to the single cell that reproduces itself after conception? A) Chromosome B) Blastocyst C) Zygote D) Trophoblast The zygote is the single cell that reproduces itself after conception. The chromosome is the material that makes up the cell and is gained from each parent. Blastocyst and trophoblast are later terms for the embryo after zygote.
  • 4. 3. When teaching a group of adolescents about male hormone production, which of the following would the nurse include as being produced by the Leydig cells? A) Follicle-stimulating hormone B) Testosterone C) Luteinizing hormone D) Gonadotropin releasing hormone Testosterone is produced by the Leyding cells in the seminiferous tubules. Follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone are released by the anterior pituitary gland. The hypothalamus is responsible for releasing gonadotropin-releasing hormone.
  • 5. 4. During which of the following stages of labor would the nurse assess ¡°crowning¡±? A) First stage B) Second stage C) Third stage D) Fourth stage Crowing, which occurs when the newborn¡¯s head or presenting part appears at the vaginal opening, occurs during the second stage of labor. During the first stage of labor, cervical dilation and effacement occur. During the third stage of labor, the newborn and placenta are delivered. The
  • 6. Q5. A client arrives at a prenatal clinic for the first prenatal assessment. The client tells a nurse that the first day of her last menstrual period was September 19th, 2013. Using Naegele¡¯s rule, the nurse determines the estimated date of confinement as: A) July 26, 2013 B) June 12, 2014 C) June 26, 2014 D) July 12, 2014 June 26, 2014. Accurate use of Naegele¡¯s rule requires that the woman have a regular 28-day menstrual cycle. Add 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period, subtract three months, and then add one year to that date.
  • 7. Q6. A male client is admitted for treatment of the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which nursing intervention is appropriate? A) Infusing I.V. fluids rapidly as ordered B) Encouraging increased oral intake C) Restricting fluids D) Administering glucose-containing I.V. fluids as ordered To reduce water retention in a client with the SIADH, the nurse should restrict fluids. Administering fluids by any route would further increase the client¡¯s already heightened fluid load.
  • 8. Q7. Which of the following fundal heights indicates less than 12 weeks¡¯ gestation when the date of the LMP is unknown? A) Uterus in the pelvis B) Uterus at the xiphoid C) Uterus in the abdomen D) Uterus at the umbilicus A. When the LMP is unknown, the gestational age of the fetus is estimated by uterine size or position (fundal height). The presence of the uterus in the pelvis indicates less than 12 weeks¡¯ gestation. At approximately 12 to 14 weeks, the fundus is out of the pelvis above the symphysis pubis. The fundus is at the level of the umbilicus at approximately 20 weeks¡¯ gestation and reaches the xiphoid at term or 40 weeks.
  • 9. Q8. On which of the following areas would the nurse expect to observe chloasma? A) Breast, areola, and nipples B) Chest, neck, arms, and legs C) Abdomen, breast, and thighs D) Cheeks, forehead, and nose Chloasma, also called the mask of pregnancy, is an irregular hyperpigmented area found on the face. It is not seen on the breasts, areola, nipples, chest, neck, arms, legs, abdomen, or thighs. .
  • 10. Q9. Cervical softening and uterine souffle are classified as which of the following? A) Diagnostic signs B) Presumptive signs C) Probable signs D) Positive signs Cervical softening (Goodell sign) and uterine souffl¨¦ are two probable signs of pregnancy. Probable signs are objective findings that strongly suggest pregnancy. Other probable signs include Hegar sign, which is softening of the lower uterine segment. Presumptive signs are subjective signs and include amenorrhea; nausea and vomiting; urinary frequency; breast tenderness and changes; excessive fatigue; uterine enlargement; and quickening.
  • 11. Q10. Which of the following fundal heights indicates less than 12 weeks¡¯ gestation when the date of the LMP is unknown? A) Uterus in the pelvis B) Uterus at the xiphoid C) Uterus in the abdomen D) Uterus at the umbilicus When the LMP is unknown, the gestational age of the fetus is estimated by uterine size or position (fundal height). The presence of the uterus in the pelvis indicates less than 12 weeks¡¯ gestation. At approximately 12 to 14 weeks, the fundus is out of the pelvis above the symphysis pubis. The fundus is at the level of the umbilicus at approximately 20 weeks¡¯ gestation and reaches the xiphoid at term or 40 weeks